CNA Practice Exam.
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1. A nurse aide is preparing for the certification exam and reads that the written portion contains a fixed number of multiple-choice items to be completed within a set time limit. Based on the exam facts, which statement is accurate?

• A. The written test has 70 multiple-choice items with a 90-minute time limit
• B. The written test has 90 multiple-choice items with a 70-minute time limit
• C. The written test has 70 multiple-choice items with no time limit
• D. The written test has 50 multiple-choice items with a 60-minute time limit

2. A resident who follows a particular faith requests a few minutes of quiet before a meal to observe a personal ritual. How should the nurse aide respond?

• A. Explain that meals must start on schedule for everyone
• B. Provide privacy and time for the ritual, then continue care afterward
• C. Ask the resident to keep the practice to themselves in the future
• D. Join in even though unfamiliar with the ritual

3. A candidate asks what is required to earn certification. Which statement correctly describes the passing requirement?

• A. Pass only the written assessment
• B. Pass only the skills assessment
• C. Pass either the written or the skills assessment
• D. Pass both the written and the skills assessments

4. A resident who recently learned of a terminal diagnosis alternates between anger at staff and periods of withdrawal. Which understanding should guide the nurse aide's care?

• A. The resident is being intentionally difficult and should be disciplined
• B. These reactions can be normal parts of coping with grief and should be met with patience and support
• C. The resident should be left alone until the mood improves
• D. The aide should tell the resident to stay positive at all times

5. To earn placement on the nurse aide registry, a candidate must succeed on the assessment. Which requirement correctly describes what a candidate must do to pass?

• A. Pass the written assessment only
• B. Pass the skills assessment only
• C. Pass either the written or the skills assessment
• D. Pass both the written and skills assessments

6. A candidate passed the written assessment but did not pass the skills assessment. According to the certification requirement, what is the outcome?

• A. Certification is granted because the written assessment was passed
• B. Certification is granted automatically after any single pass
• C. Certification is not granted because both parts must be passed
• D. Certification is deferred until the number of items increases

7. An instructor asks which pairing correctly matches the written examination's item count with its time limit. Which pairing is correct?

• A. 70 items in 60 minutes
• B. 70 items in 90 minutes
• C. 90 items in 70 minutes
• D. 60 items in 90 minutes

8. A candidate describes the written examination format to a peer and states it uses multiple-choice items. Which description of the item format is consistent with the examination structure?

• A. All items are essay responses
• B. All items are multiple-choice
• C. All items are true/false only
• D. All items are fill-in-the-blank

9. A candidate wants to allocate study time efficiently across the written exam. If the written test contains 70 items and allows 90 minutes, what is the average time available per item?

• A. About 0.8 minutes per item
• B. About 1.3 minutes per item
• C. About 2.0 minutes per item
• D. About 3.0 minutes per item

10. A candidate finishes 35 of the written exam's items at the 45-minute mark. Assuming the 70-item, 90-minute written exam, how is this candidate pacing relative to the halfway point?

• A. Behind pace — fewer than half the items done at the halfway time
• B. Exactly on pace — half the items done at the halfway time
• C. Ahead of pace — more than half the items done at the halfway time
• D. Impossible to determine from the information given

11. A candidate reaches the end of the 90-minute written session with 10 of the 70 items still unanswered. From a strategy standpoint promoting the best outcome, what should the candidate generally do before time expires?

• A. Leave the remaining items blank to avoid errors
• B. Provide an answer for every remaining item within the time limit
• C. Request that the 90-minute limit be extended
• D. Skip the written test and rely on the skills assessment

12. A candidate plans to spend extra time re-reading a few difficult Health Promotion items and wants a rough time reserve. On the 70-item, 90-minute written exam, if the candidate targets an average of about 1 minute per item on a first pass, approximately how much time would remain for review after the first pass?

• A. About 5 minutes
• B. About 20 minutes
• C. About 45 minutes
• D. No time would remain

13. A resident newly admitted to long-term care refuses to leave her room and states, "There's no point in anything anymore." Which action by the nursing assistant is most appropriate?

• A. Insist she attend the group activity to keep her busy
• B. Report the statement to the nurse, as it may indicate hopelessness
• C. Reassure her that she will feel better in a few days and leave
• D. Tell her that other residents have it worse than she does

14. A resident who recently lost his spouse alternates between anger and withdrawal. The nursing assistant recognizes these as:

• A. Signs that the resident needs to be left completely alone until he recovers
• B. Normal responses within the grieving process that call for patience and support
• C. Evidence that the resident is being intentionally difficult
• D. A reason to avoid mentioning the spouse at all times

15. A resident becomes tearful and says, "I feel like a burden — I can't even dress myself anymore." Which response by the nursing assistant is most therapeutic?

• A. "Don't say that. Lots of people have it worse than you."
• B. "It sounds like losing some of your independence is really hard for you."
• C. "You'll get used to it eventually, so try not to worry."
• D. "Let's not talk about sad things right now."

16. During orientation, a candidate learns that the written portion of the nurse aide competency evaluation consists of 70 multiple-choice items. Understanding the exam structure primarily helps the candidate to:

• A. Memorize the exact answers in advance
• B. Manage test anxiety by knowing what to expect, supporting a calmer, more focused approach
• C. Skip studying the psychosocial content area
• D. Assume the skills portion is unnecessary

17. During care, a resident says, "I don't see the point of getting better anymore." What is the nurse aide's most appropriate first response?

• A. Change the subject to something more cheerful
• B. Reassure the resident that everything will be fine
• C. Stay present, listen, and promptly report the statement to the nurse
• D. Tell the resident not to talk that way

18. A resident becomes tearful while looking at a family photo and says the holidays are lonely without visitors. Which nurse aide action most appropriately supports the resident's emotional needs?

• A. Remove the photo so the resident won't be reminded
• B. Sit with the resident, acknowledge the feelings, and offer to help arrange a call or visit
• C. Tell the resident to focus on the friends made in the facility
• D. Report that the resident is being difficult

19. A resident raises his voice and refuses care, saying he is "tired of being told what to do." Which approach by the nurse aide best supports the resident's need for autonomy while de-escalating?

• A. Tell the resident he must comply because it is facility policy
• B. Stay calm, offer reasonable choices about how and when care is given, and respect his input
• C. Leave and document that the resident refused all care
• D. Warn the resident that refusing care will have consequences

20. A candidate is scheduling the written portion of the nurse aide competency exam and wants to budget her time on test day. According to the exam blueprint, how many multiple-choice items must she complete on the written test?

• A. 50 questions
• B. 60 questions
• C. 70 questions
• D. 85 questions

21. A candidate passed the written portion but is nervous that this alone completes the certification requirement. Which statement reflects the correct psychosocial and factual understanding?

• A. Passing the written portion alone completes the certification
• B. Both the written and skills assessments must be passed, so continued preparation and stress management remain important
• C. The skills assessment is optional if the written score is high
• D. Only the skills assessment matters for certification

22. An examinee scores well above the cutoff on the written knowledge portion but does not meet the standard on the hands-on skills demonstration. Based on the pass requirement, what is the overall result?

• A. The examinee passes overall because the written score was high
• B. The examinee does not pass overall, because both parts must be passed
• C. The examinee's written score is averaged with the skills score to decide
• D. The examinee automatically passes the skills portion by passing the written portion

23. A test-taker wants to reserve a rough amount of time per written item so no question is left blank at the end. Using only the total item count and total time available for the written portion, which average per-item pace is closest to correct?

• A. About one-half minute per item
• B. About one and one-quarter minutes per item
• C. About three minutes per item
• D. About five minutes per item

24. On the written portion, a candidate has 90 minutes to answer 70 items. Approximately how much average time is available per item if the time is divided evenly?

• A. About 0.5 minute per item
• B. About 1.3 minutes per item
• C. About 2.5 minutes per item
• D. About 4 minutes per item

25. A candidate reviews the written portion and asks how the 90-minute time limit relates to the number of items she must answer. Which statement is accurate?

• A. There are 90 items and a 70-minute limit.
• B. There are 70 items and a 90-minute limit.
• C. There are 70 items with no time limit.
• D. There are 90 items and a 90-minute limit.

26. A candidate wants to know the total number of scored multiple-choice items and the total time for the written portion, so she can plan practice sessions of the same length. Which pairing should she use?

• A. 70 items over 90 minutes
• B. 60 items over 90 minutes
• C. 70 items over 60 minutes
• D. 80 items over 120 minutes

27. A candidate strong in hands-on care but anxious about written testing asks whether excelling on the skills demonstration could carry them past a weak written performance. Which response is correct given the pass requirement?

• A. Yes; a strong skills demonstration can substitute for the written portion
• B. No; each part must be passed on its own, so skills cannot offset the written portion
• C. Yes; only the higher of the two scores is counted
• D. No; but only because the written portion is worth more points

28. A nursing assistant enters a resident's room and notices a small electrical fire has started in a bedside lamp. According to fire response priorities, what is the FIRST action the assistant should take?

• A. Rescue and remove the resident from immediate danger
• B. Locate the nearest fire extinguisher and attempt to put out the flames
• C. Open the windows to let the smoke escape
• D. Document the incident in the resident's chart

29. Before assisting a resident to transfer from a bed to a wheelchair, which step BEST reduces the risk of a fall during the transfer?

• A. Position the wheelchair, lock its wheels, and confirm the resident is wearing non-skid footwear
• B. Ask the resident to hold onto the IV pole for support
• C. Complete the transfer as quickly as possible to limit standing time
• D. Leave the bed at its highest position to shorten the distance

30. A candidate reviewing the structure of the certified nursing assistant written examination asks how many multiple-choice items appear on the test. Which response is correct?

• A. 50 items
• B. 60 items
• C. 70 items
• D. 85 items

31. During an orientation session on test-taking readiness, a candidate wants to know the total time allotted for the written examination. What is the correct amount of time?

• A. 60 minutes
• B. 75 minutes
• C. 90 minutes
• D. 120 minutes

32. A resident is placed on contact precautions. Which action is MOST consistent with preventing transmission of the organism to other residents?

• A. Perform hand hygiene and don gloves and a gown before entering the room
• B. Wear only a surgical mask when within three feet of the resident
• C. Share the resident's blood pressure cuff with the neighboring resident to save supplies
• D. Skip hand hygiene if gloves were worn during care

33. While ambulating a resident who uses a gait belt, the resident suddenly becomes weak and begins to fall. What is the SAFEST response for the nursing assistant?

• A. Ease the resident down to the floor while protecting the head, using the gait belt and a wide base of support
• B. Grab under the resident's arms and hold them fully upright
• C. Step away so the resident does not pull the assistant down
• D. Pull the resident quickly toward the nearest chair

34. A nursing assistant is about to reposition a resident and reads a sign that says the resident requires a two-person assist. The assistant is alone. What should the assistant do?

• A. Wait and obtain a second caregiver before repositioning the resident
• B. Reposition the resident alone but move slowly
• C. Ask the resident to reposition themselves without help
• D. Remove the sign and proceed

35. To use proper body mechanics when lifting an object from the floor, the nursing assistant should:

• A. Bend at the knees, keep the back straight, and lift with the leg muscles
• B. Keep the legs straight and bend at the waist
• C. Twist at the trunk while lifting to speed the movement
• D. Hold the object as far from the body as possible

36. A resident tells the nursing assistant, "I'm thinking about ending it all — I don't want to be here anymore." What is the MOST appropriate response?

• A. Take the statement seriously and report it to the nurse right away
• B. Reassure the resident that things will get better and change the subject
• C. Keep the comment confidential because the resident spoke privately
• D. Wait until the end of the shift to mention it in passing

37. A nursing assistant finds a spill of an unknown chemical cleaning product on the floor of a supply room. Which resource is designed to provide guidance on how to safely handle that chemical?

• A. The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for the product
• B. The resident's care plan
• C. The facility menu
• D. The visitor sign-in log

38. During a written knowledge test that presents 70 multiple-choice items within a 90-minute limit, a candidate has completed 35 items with 45 minutes elapsed. Which statement BEST describes an appropriate pacing strategy for the remainder of the test?

• A. The candidate is roughly on pace, having used about half the time for half the items, and can maintain a steady rhythm
• B. The candidate must skip all remaining items because time has run out
• C. The candidate should stop and restart the test from the beginning
• D. The candidate has unlimited time and need not track pacing

39. A candidate is preparing for certification and asks what is required to be certified. Based on the exam structure, which statement is accurate?

• A. The candidate must pass both the written knowledge assessment and the skills assessment
• B. Passing only the written assessment is sufficient for certification
• C. Passing only the skills assessment is sufficient for certification
• D. Certification is granted for attempting the exam regardless of the score

40. A study group is calculating the average pace needed to complete the written examination. Using the total number of items and the total time allotted, approximately how much time is available per item on average?

• A. About 0.5 minutes per item
• B. About 1.3 minutes per item
• C. About 2.5 minutes per item
• D. About 4 minutes per item

41. A candidate who answers all questions with time to spare wonders whether finishing early affects the outcome. Based on the stated time limit, which statement is accurate?

• A. The examination has no time limit, so pace is irrelevant
• B. The examination allows up to 90 minutes, and finishing within that window is acceptable
• C. The examination must take the full 90 minutes to count
• D. The examination allows unlimited time if items remain unanswered

42. A candidate budgeting study time wants to know whether spending an average of two minutes on every written item would allow completion within the time limit. Based on the stated figures, what is the result?

• A. Yes; two minutes per item fits comfortably within the limit
• B. No; two minutes per item would exceed the time limit
• C. Yes; two minutes per item exactly equals the limit
• D. The time limit does not apply to per-item pacing

43. A candidate preparing a checklist wants to confirm the two components that must each be passed for certification. Which pair correctly identifies them?

• A. A written assessment and a skills assessment
• B. A written assessment and an oral interview
• C. A skills assessment and a background check
• D. A written assessment and a continuing-education course

44. A test-taker has a fixed window to answer every item on the written exam. What is the time limit allotted for the written portion?

• A. 60 minutes
• B. 75 minutes
• C. 90 minutes
• D. 120 minutes

45. A nurse aide notices that a newly admitted resident sits alone, refuses to join group meals, and repeatedly says "nobody here knows me." Which action by the aide best supports the resident's psychosocial adjustment?

• A. Insist the resident attend all group activities to speed up socialization
• B. Spend a few unhurried minutes introducing herself and learning the resident's preferences
• C. Leave the resident alone until he decides to participate on his own
• D. Tell the resident that everyone feels this way and it will pass

46. A resident with early dementia becomes agitated every afternoon, pacing and calling for a spouse who died years ago. Which response by the nurse aide is most therapeutic?

• A. Correct the resident firmly by explaining that the spouse has died
• B. Use a calm voice, acknowledge the feeling, and gently redirect to a comforting activity
• C. Confine the resident to the room until the agitation stops
• D. Ignore the behavior so it is not reinforced

47. A resident from a culture that values modesty becomes visibly uncomfortable when a same-day bath is scheduled with the door partially open. Which action best respects the resident's psychosocial and cultural needs?

• A. Proceed quickly so the resident has less time to feel embarrassed
• B. Close the door, provide draping, and explain each step before proceeding
• C. Tell the resident that privacy is not possible in a shared facility
• D. Ask another resident to help so the task goes faster

48. A resident who recently lost the ability to walk independently says, "I'm useless now." Which response by the nurse aide best supports coping with this loss?

• A. "You shouldn't feel that way—lots of people have it worse."
• B. "It sounds like this change has been really hard for you. Can you tell me more?"
• C. "Let's not focus on the negative today."
• D. "You'll be walking again in no time."

49. A candidate asks how long they will have to answer the written multiple-choice portion of the certification exam. Which response is correct?

• A. You will have a 90-minute time limit
• B. You will have a 60-minute time limit
• C. You will have a 120-minute time limit
• D. You will have an unlimited amount of time

50. An instructor explains that the certification exam is made up of two distinct assessments. Which pairing correctly identifies both assessments a candidate must pass?

• A. A written assessment and a skills assessment
• B. A written assessment and an oral interview
• C. A skills assessment and a background check
• D. A written assessment and a physical fitness test

51. A candidate who passed the written assessment but failed the skills assessment asks whether they are certified. Which explanation is most accurate?

• A. They are not yet certified, because certification depends on passing both assessments, and only one was passed
• B. They are certified, because the written assessment is the only one that determines certification
• C. They are certified, because passing either assessment is enough
• D. They are not certified, because the skills assessment is worth more than the written assessment

52. A student worried about certification asks what is required to earn the credential. Which statement best describes the requirement?

• A. Pass only the written assessment
• B. Pass only the skills assessment
• C. Pass both the written and skills assessments
• D. Pass either the written or skills assessment

53. A candidate wants to verify their understanding of the written portion's format. Which description correctly identifies the item format used?

• A. Multiple-choice items
• B. Short-answer written responses
• C. True or false statements only
• D. Essay questions

54. A candidate is preparing for the written portion of the nurse aide certification exam, which covers Health Promotion among other domains. How many multiple-choice items should the candidate expect on the written test?

• A. 50 items
• B. 70 items
• C. 90 items
• D. 100 items

55. To help a resident manage their day, an aide is teaching pacing strategies. As an analogy during a study group, the aide notes the written exam allows 90 minutes to complete all items. What is the correct time limit for the written test?

• A. 60 minutes
• B. 75 minutes
• C. 90 minutes
• D. 120 minutes

56. An aide-in-training is coaching a peer on reducing test anxiety by knowing the exam format in advance. Which pair correctly states the written exam's item count and time limit?

• A. 70 items in 60 minutes
• B. 50 items in 90 minutes
• C. 70 items in 90 minutes
• D. 100 items in 120 minutes

57. Two candidates compare results. Candidate X passed the written test but not the skills test; Candidate Y passed the skills test but not the written test. Which candidate has satisfied the certification requirement?

• A. Candidate X only
• B. Candidate Y only
• C. Both candidates
• D. Neither candidate

58. A nursing assistant enters the room of a resident who is quietly crying after a phone call. Which initial response best supports the resident's psychosocial needs?

• A. Leave the room to give the resident complete privacy without comment
• B. Sit down, make eye contact, and say, "You seem upset. I'm here if you'd like to talk."
• C. Tell the resident that everything will be fine and change the subject
• D. Immediately report the crying to the charge nurse before speaking to the resident

59. A resident with dementia becomes agitated and repeatedly tries to leave the unit, saying she must "go home to make dinner." Which approach best supports her psychosocial well-being?

• A. Correct her by explaining that she no longer has a home
• B. Use validation and redirection, acknowledging her feelings and gently guiding her to a nearby activity
• C. Restrain her in a chair until she calms down
• D. Ignore her and continue with other tasks

60. A resident tells the nursing assistant, "My son yells at me and grabs my arm hard when he visits, but please don't tell anyone." What is the nursing assistant's responsibility?

• A. Honor the resident's request and keep the information confidential
• B. Report the disclosure to the nurse, because suspected abuse must be reported
• C. Confront the son directly during his next visit
• D. Wait to see visible bruising before taking any action

61. A resident from a culture with specific dietary and prayer practices asks the nursing assistant to adjust the timing of morning care. The best response is to:

• A. Explain that the facility schedule cannot be changed for one person
• B. Accommodate the request when possible and inform the nurse of the resident's preferences
• C. Tell the resident that religious practices are not part of nursing care
• D. Complete care on the usual schedule to remain fair to all residents

62. A test candidate becomes anxious about completing the written exam within its 90-minute time limit. Which coping strategy best supports psychosocial well-being during the exam?

• A. Rushing through all items without reading them to save time
• B. Using slow, deep breathing and pacing steadily within the 90-minute limit to stay calm and focused
• C. Refusing to take the exam to avoid the stress entirely
• D. Repeatedly telling oneself that failure is certain

63. A candidate is planning their pacing strategy for the written knowledge portion of the exam, which contains a fixed number of items to complete within the allotted session. How many multiple-choice items must the candidate expect to answer on this written portion?

• A. 50 items
• B. 60 items
• C. 70 items
• D. 80 items

64. During orientation, an examinee wants to know the total amount of time available to finish the written knowledge items. What is the time limit for this portion?

• A. 60 minutes
• B. 75 minutes
• C. 90 minutes
• D. 120 minutes

65. A candidate has completed the written knowledge portion and passed it comfortably. Which statement best describes what still remains before the candidate can be considered successful overall?

• A. Nothing further; passing the written portion alone is sufficient
• B. The candidate must still pass the separate skills assessment
• C. The candidate must retake the written portion for confirmation
• D. The candidate must wait for the written score to be averaged into a single number

66. With 20 minutes remaining in the 90-minute written session, a candidate wants to know how much of the total time has already elapsed. How many minutes of the written session have passed at that point?

• A. 50 minutes
• B. 60 minutes
• C. 70 minutes
• D. 80 minutes

67. A candidate budgets time to leave the final 10 minutes of the written session for reviewing flagged items rather than answering new ones. Given the total session length, how many minutes are then available for the first pass through the items?

• A. 70 minutes
• B. 80 minutes
• C. 85 minutes
• D. 90 minutes

68. During a review session, a candidate says, "I passed the skills assessment, so I'm now certified." Which response by the instructor is most accurate?

• A. "Correct — the skills assessment alone grants certification."
• B. "Not yet — you must also pass the written assessment."
• C. "Certification is automatic once you register."
• D. "The written assessment replaces the skills assessment."

69. A candidate finishes the 70 written items with time to spare and asks whether a strong written score alone will place her on the registry. What is the most accurate response?

• A. Yes — a high written score alone is sufficient to pass.
• B. No — she must pass the skills assessment as well as the written.
• C. Yes — the skills assessment is optional once the written is passed.
• D. No — she must retake the written even after passing it.

70. A candidate pacing herself notices she is halfway through the 90-minute window. To stay on an even pace for all 70 written items, roughly how many items should she have completed by that midpoint?

• A. About 20 items
• B. About 35 items
• C. About 50 items
• D. About 65 items

71. A candidate passed the skills assessment but fell short on the written assessment. Based on the passing requirement, what is her overall status?

• A. She has passed overall, since one part was successful.
• B. She has not passed overall, because both parts must be passed.
• C. She has passed overall, because the skills part outweighs the written.
• D. Her status cannot be determined from the requirement.

72. If a candidate spends about two minutes on each of the 70 written items, will she stay within the 90-minute limit for the written portion?

• A. Yes — two minutes per item fits comfortably within the limit.
• B. Yes — two minutes per item uses exactly the full limit.
• C. No — two minutes per item would exceed the time limit.
• D. It cannot be determined from the information given.

73. A nursing assistant is preparing to complete the written portion of the certification examination. Which statement accurately describes the number of items the assistant should expect on this portion of the test?

• A. The written portion contains 70 multiple-choice items
• B. The written portion contains 50 multiple-choice items
• C. The written portion contains 100 multiple-choice items
• D. The written portion contains 35 multiple-choice items

74. A candidate has 90 minutes to complete the 70-item written portion. Approximately how much average time is available per item if the candidate wishes to distribute time evenly across all items?

• A. About 1.3 minutes per item
• B. About 5 minutes per item
• C. About 10 minutes per item
• D. About 0.5 minutes per item

75. A candidate completed the written knowledge test but did not demonstrate competency during the hands-on skills evaluation. Based on the exam's passing requirement, what is the outcome for certification?

• A. The candidate has not met the requirement, because both the written and skills assessments must be passed
• B. The candidate has met the requirement, because passing the written test alone is sufficient
• C. The candidate has met the requirement, because the skills assessment is optional
• D. The candidate has met the requirement, because the written test overrides the skills result

76. A candidate is roughly halfway through the 90-minute written portion and has answered 20 of the 70 items. Which conclusion about pacing is best supported by these numbers?

• A. The candidate is behind the average pace, because at the halfway point roughly 35 items would be expected
• B. The candidate is ahead of the average pace and can slow down considerably
• C. The candidate has answered exactly the expected number of items
• D. The candidate cannot make any judgment about pace from this information

77. During the written portion, a candidate wants to reserve the final 10 minutes to review flagged answers. Given the total time limit, how many minutes remain for answering items before that review period begins?

• A. 80 minutes
• B. 90 minutes
• C. 70 minutes
• D. 60 minutes

78. A candidate reasons: "If I must answer 70 items within 90 minutes, then answering fewer than one item every two minutes should keep me within the limit." Which statement best evaluates this reasoning?

• A. The reasoning is sound, because 70 items in 90 minutes averages under two minutes per item, so staying under two minutes per item fits within the limit
• B. The reasoning is unsound, because 70 items cannot be completed in 90 minutes
• C. The reasoning is unsound, because each item requires exactly two minutes
• D. The reasoning cannot be evaluated without knowing the passing score